The space $A$ is called homotopy dominated by the space $X$ if there are maps $f:A\longrightarrow X$ and $g:X\longrightarrow A$ so that $g\circ f\simeq id_A$.

Question: If $A$ is homotopy dominated by $X_1\vee X_2$, then is $A$ of the form $A_1 \vee A_2$ (up to homotopy equivalent) where $A_i$ is homotopy dominated by $X_i$ for $i=1,2$?