If ℝ^# exists then why is cof(θ^L(ℝ)) = ω? Also I have the same question for the L(V_λ+1) generalization (if it's actually a different proof; I presume it isn't), i.e. if θ is defined as the sup of the surjections in L(V_λ+1) of V_λ+1 onto an ordinal, then if V_λ+1^# exists why is cof(θ^L(V_λ+1)) = ω?