For $X/{\sim}$ a quotient space, $$ Map(X/{\sim},Y)\subset Map(X,Y). $$ But is this inclusion always a homeomorphism on its image? (Assuming compact-open topology on the mapping spaces.) If not what would be the most general setting to make it true? We can also assume that $X$ and $Y$ are compactly generated.
Mapping space from a quotient space
Victor
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