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Saal Hardali
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When are finite maps quotients by finite groups?

Let $f: X \to Y$ be a finite map of projective varieties.

I'm trying to understand when and how often should i expect $f$ to be a quotient map by a finite group acting on $X$. Even more strictly let $G=Aut(k(X)/k(Y))$.

  1. When is there a well defined action of $G$ on $X$?

  2. When is $f$ isomorphic to the quotient map by an action $X \to X^G$?

If $X$ and $Y$ are smooth projective curves then I think (2) always holds (although $G$ may be different) but I haven't been able to formalize this. Are there any useful conditions which ensure that (2) holds?

Saal Hardali
  • 7.8k
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  • 99