Skip to main content
3 of 3
replaced http://math.stackexchange.com/ with https://math.stackexchange.com/

The answer is No.

Let us assume that the claim you are asking about is true and let us try to arrive at a contradiction.

Cardinality of the set of all Borel measurable functions is $\mathfrak c=2^{\aleph^0}$; see here.

Let us well-order all positive Borel functions as $\{g_\alpha; \alpha<\mathfrak c\}$. Let us consider some well-ordering $\mathbb R=\{x_\alpha; \alpha<\mathfrak c\}$ of real numbers. Let us define a new function $f\colon\mathbb R\to(0,\infty)$ as $$f(x_\alpha)=\frac{g_\alpha(x_\alpha)}2.$$ Clearly, there is no $\alpha$ such that $g_\alpha\le f$. This contradicts the given claim.

Martin Sleziak
  • 4.7k
  • 4
  • 35
  • 40