Taken at face value, the question as it stands contains incorrect / inconsistent / confusing data (see my comment). Below, I will try to answer my interpretation of the problem...

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So, let $dV_n$ denote volume measure in $\mathbb C^n$ and $dS_{n-1}$ denote the surface area measure. By the coarea-formula, we have
$$
\begin{split}
\int_{B(r)}\mu(z)dV_n(z) &= \int_{0}^r\left(\int_{\partial B(t)}\mu(z)dS_{n-1}(z)\right)dt\\
&= \int_{0}^r\left(\int_{\partial B(t)}\frac{\mu(z)}{S_{n-1}(\partial B(t))}dS_{n-1}(z)\right)S_{n-1}(\partial B(t))dt\\
&\ge\int_{0}^r\left(\int_{\partial B(t)}\frac{\mu(z)^{1/2}}{S_{n-1}(\partial B(t))}dS_{n-1}(z)\right)^2S_{n-1}(\partial B(t))dt\\
&= \int_{0}^r\left(\int_{\partial B(t)}\mu(z)^{1/2}dS_{n-1}(z)\right)^2\frac{1}{S_{n-1}(\partial B(t))}dt\\
\end{split}
$$

where the inequality is an applicaiton of Jensen's inequality on the measure probability measure $A \mapsto S_{n-1}(A \cap \partial B(t))/S_{n-1}(\partial B(t))$.