In the Higher Topos Theory, Example 1.2.14.2 says “finitely presentable $\infty$-groupoids correspond precisely to the finite cell complexes” But, for example, $K(\mathbb{Z}, 2)$ is seems finitely presentable ($1$ object $*$, $0$ generating $1$-morphisms and $1$ generating $2$-morphism on $\mathrm{id}_*$) and it [is not homotopy equivalent to a finite complex](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/84422/finite-dimensional-eilenberg-maclane-spaces). Is this a mistake in the book?