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Lior Silberman
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You have shown that $e^{-Ht}\colon L^2\to L^1$ is bounded with the given operator norm. It follows that the dual operator $$\left(e^{-Ht}\right)^*\colon (L^1)^* \to (L^2)^*$$ is bounded with the same operator norm. Since $(L^1)^* = L^\infty$ and $(L^2)^* = L^2$ (these are isomorphisms, actually), it remains to check that $\left(e^{-Ht}\right)^* = e^{-Ht}$.

For this note that $$\int f(x)(e^{-Ht}g)(x)dx = \iint f(x)e(x,y;t)g(y)dxdy$$ where $e(x,y;t)$ is the heat kernel, which is real and symmetric in the variables $x,y$. It follows that $\left(e^{-Ht}\right)^*$ is again integration against the heat kernel as claimed.

Lior Silberman
  • 2.8k
  • 18
  • 18