I am reading Pinelis "An approach to inequalities for the distributions of infinite -dimensional martingales" and cannot follow his proof of Theorem 3:

Let $(f_n)$ be a martingale in a separable Banach space $(\mathcal{X},||~||)$, $\mathcal{X} = L^p, p \geq 2$ and $f^*=\sup\{||f_n||\}$.

Theorem 3 says

\begin{align} P(f^*>r) \leq 2\exp\big(-r^2/2(p-1)\big), \quad r \geq 0 \end{align}

and Pinelis writes

One can compare the last inequality with \begin{align} P(f^*>r) \leq (r+1)\exp(-r^2/2) \end{align} in Kallenberg ans Sztencel (1991) proved for $\mathcal{X} = L^2$.

Does he refer to

\begin{align} P(f^*>r) \leq \frac{1+r}{1+rc}\exp\big(-\frac{r}{2c} \ln(1+rc)\big), \quad r \geq 0 \end{align} from Kallenberg and Sztencel (1991)? If so, I still cannot see the path he takes to prove his theorem.

Kallenberg and Sztencel (1991): Some dimension-free features of vector-valued martingales