If you consider an exact sequence of groups, it's a fibration of topological spaces, so you get a homotopy long exact sequence. So that makes me think $\pi_n$ behaves like a derived functor from topological abelian groups to abelian groups. In particular this is the derived functor of $\pi_0$.
So there is the spectral sequence for applying a derived functor to a complex whose first page whose second page is $\pi_m$ of cohomology of $G_n$.
However, I don't think the first page is $\pi_m(G_n)$. One can see this from an exact sequence, like $\mathbb Z/2 \to S^1 \to S^1$. All the homotopy groups of the cohomology are trivial, because it is exact. But $\pi_m(G_n)$ has many nonzero terms and you can't make them all vanish just by applying a differential.
I don't know enough about spectral sequences to say exactly what the relationship between these two objects is, but I believe it is a question primarily of homological algebra.