Let $\mu$ be *a finite complex valued measure* on $\mathbb{R}$ and let $\hat{\mu}$  be it's Fourier–Stieltjes transform 
$$
\hat{\mu}(\omega)= \int_{\mathbb{R}} e^{it\omega} d \mu(t)
$$
**Question:** Does $\hat{\mu}$ uniquely determine $\mu$? I am fairly sure that it does. However, I was not able to locate my standard references.  Is there a good place where I can find proof of this fact?