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Joseph Victor
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Why are cup-i products and Steenrod Squares often (always?) unary?

One way to define the Steenrod Operations is to use the cup-i product, as in Mosher and Tangora's book. It basically says, given the chain complex from mod-2 homology $C_*$, define

$D_0 : C_\*\to C_\*\otimes C_\*$,

so that the cup product is given (on cocycles)

$(u\cup v)(\sigma) = (u\otimes v)(D_0\sigma)$

and then for higher $i$, define $D_i$ so that

$D_{i-1}+\rho D_{i-1} = D_i\partial + \partial D_i$

where $\rho$ is the flipping map. Then the $\cup_i$ product is just

$(u\cup_i u)(\sigma) = (u\otimes u)(D_i\sigma)$

And then define for $[u]\in H^n$ $Sq^{2n-i}([u]) = [u\cup_{i}u]$

This definition seems perfectly well-defined as a binary operation, and yet wherever I've seen it done it has only even been used as a unary operation.

Is there a reason why this is the case, why either the product is undefined as a binary product or not useful as a binary product or just too hard to use?
Is this a dumb question?

Thanks, -Joseph

Joseph Victor
  • 1.1k
  • 7
  • 16