Let us say that two norms $\|\cdot\|_1$ and $\|\cdot\|_2$ on a real vector space $V$ are *strongly equivalent* if there exists a constant $\lambda \geq 1$ such that 
$$
\frac{1}{\lambda} \|x-y\|_1 \leq  \|x-y\|_2 \leq  \lambda \|x-y\|_1
$$
*and*
$$
\frac{1}{\lambda} \left( \|x\|_1 + \|y\|_1 - \|x + y\|_1 \right) \leq 
 \|x\|_2 + \|y\|_2 - \|x + y\|_2 \leq  \lambda \left( \|x\|_1 + \|y\|_1 - \|x + y\|_1 \right)
$$
for all vectors $x$, $y$, and $z$ in $V$.

In finite dimensions only the second condition is interesting and it says that the defect in the triangular inequality for any one of the norms is controlled by the defect of the other. In particular, both normed spaces must have exactly
the same geodesics. Thus, for example, the $\ell_\infty$ and the $\ell_2$ norms on the plane are **not** strongly equivalent. 

**Question.** Is there a simple criterion to determine whether two norms on the plane (or in a finite-dimensional) space are strongly equivalent. What if we assume that the unit spheres of both norms are polygons or that the unit spheres are smooth and positively curved?