$\DeclareMathOperator\Sh{Sh}\DeclareMathOperator\Pt{Pt}$Maybe this is well-known or even a stupid misunderstanding of something very basic. It's well-known that the groupoid of points (i.e., groupoid completion of the category of points) of $\Sh (X_\text{ét})$, $\Pt (X_\text{ét})$, is described by geometric points as objects and paths of étale specialisations and generalisations between them (SGA4). For the corresponding (pro-)étale $\infty$-topoi, $\Sh_{\infty} (X_\text{(pro-)ét})$, the $\infty$-groupoid of points is $1$-truncated since $\Sh_{\infty} (X_\text{(pro-)ét})$ is $1$-localic and, hence, it doesn't matter if one works with the respective $\infty$-topoi. 

  On the other side, $\Pt (X_\text{pro-ét})$ has geometric points as points, however such collection is not even conservative (see [61.18 Points of the pro-étale site](https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0991)).

  Now, there's also the shape of $\Sh_{\infty} (X_\text{ét})$, $\Pi_{\infty} (X_\text{ét})$, and its profinite version, $\widehat{\Pi}_{\infty} (X_\text{ét})$, which coincides with the étale homotopy type of $X$. When $X$ is qcqs, it's also known that $\Pi_{\infty} (X_\text{ét})\cong \Pi_{\infty} (X_\text{pro-ét})$ (6.1.6 in [Barwick, Glasman, and Haine - Exodromy](https://arxiv.org/abs/1807.03281)). 

  Let $\pi^\text{BS}_1 (X, \overline{x})$ be defined as the automorphisms of a fiber functor from étale coverings satisfying the valuative criterion for properness ([Bhatt and Scholze - The pro-étale topology for schemes](https://arxiv.org/abs/1309.1198)). In $\Sh (X_\text{pro-ét})$, there are several points that are not geometric (as mentioned above) and, in fact, they are not even a conservative family. On the other side, $\pi_1 ({\Pi}_{\infty} (X_\text{ét}), \overline{x})$, when $X$ is connected locally Noetherian, has dense image in $\pi^{BS}_1 (X)$ (Rem 7.4.12 in [Bhatt and Scholze - The pro-étale topology for schemes](https://arxiv.org/abs/1309.1198)).

  1) What's the relation between $\pi^\text{BS}_1 (X, \overline{x})$ and $\Pt (X_\text{pro-ét})$? Is it just the connected component of $\overline{x}$?

  2) Is every  element of $\pi^\text{BS}_1 (X, \overline{x})$ given by a path of specialisations and generalisations?

  3) What are the points and paths in $\Pt (X_\text{pro-ét})$? I think the points are given by connected affine $w$-contractible objects, i.e., connected $w$-strict local rings, i.e., a local ring having a section for every affine fpqc covering.


  Now, let's purposefully complicate everything a little more. For $X$ qcqs, one can define a profinite stratified space or, equivalently (Hochster's duality), a spectral stratified $\infty$-topoi ${\widehat{\Pi}_{(\infty, 1)}^{X_\text{Zar}} (X_\text{(pro-)ét})}$ ([Barwick, Glasman, and Haine - Exodromy](https://arxiv.org/abs/1807.03281)). By taking the groupoid completion, one gets back $\Pi_{\infty} (X_\text{(pro-)et})$ (recall that, as mentioned above, changing from étale to pro-étale gives an equivalent shape) and, by taking the materialisation (I guess it means just taking the real limit in spaces of a profinite stratified space), one gets a $X_\text{Zar}$-stratified version of $\Pt (X_\text{(pro-)ét})$ before the groupoid completion. 

 4) Do the materialisations coincide at first or after inverting all the maps?

 5) What's really the difference between ${\widehat{\Pi}_{(\infty, 1)}^{X_\text{Zar}} (X_\text{ét})}$ and ${\widehat{\Pi}_{(\infty, 1)}^{X_\text{Zar}} (X_\text{pro-ét})}$?

  Maybe I've screwed up something in my assertions. If so, please, comment below.