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67 votes
1 answer
7k views

Why can't a nonabelian group be 75% abelian?

This question asks for intuition, not a proof. An earlier question, Measures of non-abelian-ness was thoroughly answered by Arturo Magidin. A paper by Gustafson1 proves that, for a nonabelian group, ...
Joseph O'Rourke's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
80 views

Are the roots of an infinitely divisible probability infinitely divisible themselves?

Let $\mu$ be an infinitely divisible probability on a topological group $G$. If $\nu ^{* n} = \mu$ for some $n$, is $\nu$ an infinitely divisible probability too? A sufficient criterion would be to ...
Alex M.'s user avatar
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