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Closed-form CDF for bivariate normal distribution in point $(\Phi^{-1}(p),\,\Phi^{-1}(p))$

Let $\Phi(x)$ be a CDF of standard normal distribution and $\Phi^{-1}(p),\,p\in(0,1)$ its inverse. It is evident that $$ \mathbb{P}(X<\Phi^{-1}(p))=\Phi(\Phi^{-1}(p))=p, $$ where $X\sim N(0,1)$. Is ...