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Why could Mertens not prove the prime number theorem?

We know that $$ \sum_{n \le x}\frac{1}{n\ln n} = \ln\ln x + c_1 + O(1/x) $$ where $c_1$ is a constant. Again Mertens' theorem says that the primes $p$ satisfy $$ \sum_{p \le x}\frac{1}{p} = \ln\ln ...
Nilotpal Kanti Sinha's user avatar