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How can we solve this kind of saddle point problem?
I'm trying to solve a saddle point problem of the following form: Let
$(E,\mathcal E,\lambda)$ be a measure space;
$p$ be a probability density on $(E,\mathcal E,\lambda)$ and $\mu:=p\lambda$
$W$ be ...
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2
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Can we conclude $\sup_g\int f_1g\le\sup_g\int f_2g$ from $\int f_1\le\int f_2$ in this situation?
Disclaimer: Please bear with me, the question isn't as complicated as it looks like, but I wasn't able to find any simplification for which no counterexample comes to my find.
Let $(E,\mathcal E,\...
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