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Informally: When is a Sobolev function, post-composed by a vector-valued function still Sobolev? Assumptions/Setup Let $(X,d_X,m_X)$ and $(Y,d_Y,m_Y)$ be complete and separable metric measure spaces; ...

Let $(X,d,m)$ and $(Y,\rho,n)$ be metric measure spaces and let $f:X\rightarrow Y$ be a Borel-measurable function for which there is some $y_0$ and some $p\geq 0$ such that $$ \int_{x\in X}\,d(y_0,f(x)...