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8 votes
2 answers
3k views

Is $f(x,y)=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}\backslash\{0\}}\frac{1}{n}e^{2\pi i(xn+yn^2)}$ essentially bounded?

Let $$f(x,y)=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}\backslash\{0\}}\frac{1}{n}e^{2\pi i(xn+yn^2)} $$ Is it true that $\|f\|_{L^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^2)}<\infty$? i.e. is $f$ essentially bounded?
Tony B's user avatar
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5 votes
1 answer
2k views

Lebesgue measure of some set of irrational numbers

Let $(i_{n})$ be a strictly increasing sequence of natural numbers, $(v_{n})$ be an unbounded sequences of natural numbers and $M\geq 2$. Denote by $\mathcal{I}(i_{n}, v_{n}, M)$ the set of all ...
sokho's user avatar
  • 197