All Questions
1 question
8
votes
2
answers
3k
views
Is $f(x,y)=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}\backslash\{0\}}\frac{1}{n}e^{2\pi i(xn+yn^2)}$ essentially bounded?
Let $$f(x,y)=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}\backslash\{0\}}\frac{1}{n}e^{2\pi i(xn+yn^2)}
$$
Is it true that $\|f\|_{L^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^2)}<\infty$? i.e. is $f$ essentially bounded?