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The Notion of Strong Measurability for Separable Banach Spaces
Let $ (X,\Sigma,\mu) $ be a measure space and $ B $ a Banach space. According to my understanding, a function $ f: X \to B $ is said to be strongly $ \mu $-measurable if and only if it is the almost-...
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Is the following "section-wise" defined function measurable in the product space?
I asked this question in mathstackexchange a couple of days ago. Almost right after posing it a partial (affirmative) answer came to my mind in the following form
Proposition: Assume that $(X,\...
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Does equality almost everywhere on a product imply equality almost everywhere on sections [closed]
(This question was on MSE, with no answers)
Consider two $\sigma$-finite measure spaces $X_1$ and $X_2$, and $X=X_1\times X_2$ the product measure space (a priori non-completed).
Take two functions ...
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$f \in L^2(X\times Y,\mu \times K)$ for Kernel $K$, is the map $X \ni x \mapsto (f(x,\cdot),x) \in \bigsqcup_{x \in X}L^2(Y,\Sigma_Y,K_x)$ measurable?
Let $(X,\Sigma_X)$ and $(Y,\Sigma_Y)$ be two measurable spaces, let $\mu$ be a measure on $(X,\Sigma_X)$, and let $(K_x)_{x \in X}$ be a transition kernel from $(X,\Sigma_X)$ to $(Y,\Sigma_Y)$, that ...
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