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Does the Gaussian Poincare inequality hold for $p=1$ as well as $p=2$?
Let $X$ be a real-valued standard normal variable. Then, for any differentiable function $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ such that $E[f(X)^2] < \infty$ and $E[\bigl( f'(X) \bigr)^2] < \infty$, it ...
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