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Tagged with equivariant-homotopy topological-groups
2 questions
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A $\mathbb{Z}_2$-equivariant map from $n$-torus to $2$-sphere that is null-homotopic is $\mathbb{Z}_2$-homotopic to a non-surjective map?
I have been thinking on the problem below for a while and I am not sure if it is correct or not. I am trying to see if there exists a counter-example for the problem below.
Problem: Let $f: (S^1)^n \...
- 21
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$\operatorname{Spaces}/BG$ $\sim$ $\operatorname{Spaces}^G$ $\sim$ $??(\Omega G)$
This is a crosspost (with minor alterations).
For a topological group $G$, assigning to a $G$-space $X$ the (canonical) map $EG\times_GX\to BG$ establishes an equivalence between the homotopy category ...
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