Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
11 votes
4 answers
1k views

Why is alpha-equivalence in untyped $\lambda$-calculus substitutive?

This is something all introductory texts seem to avoid proving, and many even avoid stating. We consider untyped $\lambda$-terms on some countably infinite alphabet. If $x$ is a variable and $p$ is ...
darij grinberg's user avatar