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6 votes
1 answer
302 views

Why is $\operatorname{nr}_{F[G]}:K_1(F[G])\to Z(F[G])^\times$ a bijection?

Let $A$ be a finite dimensional semisimple $F$-algebra and $K_1(A)$ the Whitehead group of $A$. By splitting $A$ into its Wedderburn components, the reduced norm map $\operatorname{nr}_A:K_1(A)\to Z(...
eddie's user avatar
  • 255
15 votes
2 answers
2k views

Why does the Grothendieck group $K_0(R)$ of a ring not depend on our choice of using left modules instead of right modules?

I am under the impression that in the definition of the Grothendieck group $K_0(R)$ of a (non-commutative) ring it doesn't matter whether we apply the usual $K_0$ construction to the exact category of ...
Beren Sanders's user avatar