If the stated question is true then what are the consequencies to mathematical physics as an aspect of Hilbert's 6th Problem.


closed as not a real question by Timothy Chow, Emil Jeřábek, Theo Johnson-Freyd, Andreas Blass, Angelo Feb 24 '12 at 17:20

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    $\begingroup$ The short answer to the question is no. As it stands, the question is either trivial or too vague and unfocused to be appropriate to MO. Voting to close. $\endgroup$ – Timothy Chow Feb 24 '12 at 16:04
  • $\begingroup$ Please read mathoverflow.net/howtoask and mathoverflow.net/faq. One of the requirements to ask a good question is that you put a lot of thought into it yourself, and make that effort clear. I vote to close. $\endgroup$ – Theo Johnson-Freyd Feb 24 '12 at 16:48

No. The incompleteness theorem does not say anything about whether a particular informal theory is capable of being formalized. The incompleteness theorem only applies to formal theories, so it doesn't tell us anything about a theory that has not yet been formalized. You might want to read a book by Franzen called Godel's Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to Its Use and Abuse.

  • $\begingroup$ I will try to read the book. $\endgroup$ – Jamahl Peavey Feb 24 '12 at 20:43

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