A limit involving binomial coefficients: $\lim_{n\to\infty} (-1)^n\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^k{n\choose k}^{-1/k}=\frac12$? Experimentation suggests the limit
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (-1)^n\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^k{n\choose k}^{-1/k}=\frac{1}{2}\ .$$
Does somebody have an idea for (a start of) a proof?
Added: There seem to be variations:
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (-1)^n\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^k{2n\choose k}^{-1/k}=\frac{1}{8}\ ,$$
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (-1)^n\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^k{3n\choose k}^{-1/k}=\frac{2}{27}\ ,$$
etc.
Moreover, the exponent $-1/k$ in the original identity can seemingly be replaced by $-2/k$, $-3/k$ (by $-\alpha/k$
for strictly positive $\alpha$?) without changing the limit value.
Update: Given a strictly positive rational number $\frac{p}{q}\leq 1$ (with coprime natural integers $p,q$), there is perhaps
a number $\lambda(p/q)$ such that
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(-1)^n\sum_{k=1}^{pn}(-1)^k{qn\choose k}^{-\alpha/k}=
\frac{(\lambda(p/q))^\alpha}{2}$$
for $\alpha$ real and strictly positive.
A few values for $\lambda$ are seemingly
$$\lambda\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{4}{27},\ \lambda\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{1}{4},\ \lambda\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{3\sqrt{3}},\ \lambda\left(1\right)=1\ .$$
Two more conjectures: $\lambda\left(\frac{1}{q}\right)=\frac{(q-1)^{q-1}}{q^q}$
and $\lambda(x)^x=\lambda(1-x)^{1-x}$ for rational $x$ in $(0,1)$.
The correct formula for $\lambda$ is perhaps $\lambda(x)=x(1-x)^{(1-x)/x}$.
 A: Here is a different approach. Write $$a_{n,k} = \binom{n}{k}^{-1/(n-k)}$$ (or whatever the term is) for $0 \le k < n$ and $a_{n,k} = 0$ for $k \ge n$. Then $$\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} (-1)^k \binom{n}{k}^{-1/(n-k)} = \sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^k a_{n,k} = \frac{a_{n,0}}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \sum_{k=0}^\infty (a_{n,2k} - 2 a_{n,2k+1} + a_{n,2k+2})\,.$$
So if you can show that $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{k=0}^\infty |a_{n,2k} - 2 a_{n,2k+1} + a_{n,2k+2}| = 0\,,$$ the claim will follow. This should hold for any sufficiently "smooth" double sequence $(a_{n,k})$, since it just means that locally the sequence (for fixed $n$) varies nearly linearly.
If $a_{n,k} = f_n(k)$ for some nice function $f_n$, then the second order difference is bounded by $\max \{|f''_n(x)| : 2k \le x \le 2k+2\}$, which may help in the estimate. For example, taking $a_{n,k} = n^{-1/(n-k)}$, so $f_n(x) = \exp\left(-\frac{1}{n-x} \log n\right)$, we have $$f''_n(x) = \left(\left(\frac{\log n}{(n-x)^2}\right)^2 + \frac{2\log n}{(n-x)^3}\right) f_n(x)\,.$$ For $0 < \alpha < 1$, we find that $$\sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor n - \alpha \log n\rfloor} |a_{n,2k} - 2 a_{n,2k+1} + a_{n,2k+2}| \le C \frac{1}{\alpha^3 \log n}\,,$$and the tail can be estimated by a constant times $\exp(-1/\alpha)$. Taking $\alpha$ arbitrarily close to zero shows that $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} (-1)^k n^{-1/(n-k)} = \frac{1}{2}\,.$$ For the original problem, the estimates are likely to be more involved, but should be possible.
Addition:
The formula for $\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k a_{n,k}$ given near the beginning of this answer can (in the case $a_{n,k} = f_n(k)$) be interpreted as $a_{n,0}/2$ plus half the difference between the trapezoid-rule and midpoint-rule approximations to $\int_0^\infty f_n(x)\,dx$ using the even integers as subdivision points. For a well-behaved sequence of functions, this difference should tend to zero.
So the problem has only little to do with binomial coefficients as such.
A: Off-the-wall suggestion... Take $n$ even, I call it $2n$ now.  Then asymptotically as $n \to \infty$
$$
\binom{2n}{2n-2j-1}^{-1/(2n-2j-1)} - \binom{2n}{2n-2j}^{-1/(2n-2j)} \sim \frac{1}{2n}\log
\frac{2n}{2j-1}
$$
and the sum
$$
\frac{1}{2n}\sum_{j=1}^{n}\log\frac{2n}{2j-1}
$$
is a Riemann  sum for the integral
$$
\frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 \log\frac{1}{t}\;dt = \frac{1}{2} .
$$

Added Feb.3
I said it was off-the-wall.  The asymptotic expansion is from Maple, like this:
    

A: I would suggest to re-write the problem as $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} (-1)^k \binom{n}{k}^{-1/(n-k)} = {}?\,.$$ Now if I'm not mistaken, it is true that for fixed $x$ with $|x| < 1$, we have $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} (-1)^k \binom{n}{k}^{-1/(n-k)} x^k = \frac{1}{1+x}$$(the coefficients have absolute value $\le 1$ and converge termwise to $(-1)^k$; multiplying by $x^k$ lets us apply dominated convergence). So it would be sufficient to show that $\lim_{n \to \infty}$ and $\lim_{x \to 1-}$ commute. I don't have time right now to really dive into it, but maybe somebody else would like to go from here.
Note that this would also give a proof of the more general version: 
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \binom{qn}{pn+k}^{-a/(n-k)} = \lim_{n\to\infty} \binom{qn}{pn}^{-a/n} = \left(\frac{p^p (q-p)^{q-p}}{q^q}\right)^a$$ 
