A question about the additive group of a finitely generated integral domain Let $R$ be an integral domain of characteristic 0 finitely generated as a ring over $\mathbb{Z}$. Can the quotient group $(R,+)/(\mathbb{Z},+)$ contain a divisible element? By a "divisible element" I mean an element $e\ne 0$ such that for every positive integer $n$ there is an element f such that $e=nf$.
As Darji points out, another way to ask the question is this: Suppose $e\in R$ has the property that for all positive integers $n$, $e$ is congruent to an integer mod $nR$. Must $e$ be an integer?
Note: I previously posted this to Math StackExchange here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/71031/a-question-about-the-additive-group-of-a-finitely-generated-integral-domain
TO SUMMARIZE:
Qing Liu showed that in fact any non-integer rational in $R$ determines a divisible element of $(R,+)/(\mathbb{Z},+)$, and Wilberd van der Kallen showed that all divisible elements arise in this way. 
I wish I could accept both answers.
 A: As Qing Liu explains there may be such nontrivial $e$. 
Suppose there was such an $e$.
By Grothendieck's Generic Freeness Theorem,
[Theorem 14.4 in
David Eisenbud, Commutative algebra with a view toward algebraic geometry, 
Graduate Texts in Mathematics, 
Springer-Verlag, New York, 1995]
there is $0\neq a\in \Bbb Z$ so that $A[1/a]$ is a free $\Bbb Z[1/a]$-module.
Choose a basis and write $1$ in terms of that basis.
We see $1$ lies in a direct summand spanned by finitely  many basis vectors.
By the structure theorem of finitely generated modules over a PID we
see that in fact $Q=A[1/a]/\Bbb Z[1/a]$ is a free $Z[1/a]$-module plus a finite group.
So it does not contain any nontrivial divisible element. But the image of $e$ in $Q$ is divisible. That means that $e\in \Bbb Z[1/a]$.
So far so good. The next line is wrong, as explained by Qing Liu.
But $\Bbb Z[1/a]/\Bbb Z$ does not contain any divisible element.
A: The answer is no in general ($e$ needs not to be in $\mathbb Z$), but one can show that $e$ is divisible in $R/\mathbb Z$ if and only if $e\in \mathbb Q\cap R$. 
First let $R=\mathbb Z[1/p]$ for some prime number $p$. Then I claim that $1/p$ is divisible in $R/\mathbb Z$. Indeed for any $n\ge 1$, write $n=p^rm$ with $m$ prime to $p$. Let $a,b\in \mathbb Z$ such that $am+bp=1$. Then 
$$\frac{1}{p}=b+ \frac{am}{p}=b+n\frac{a}{p^{r+1}}\in \mathbb Z + nR.$$ 
For general $R$, denote by $D$ the elements $e\in R$ which are divisible in $R/\mathbb Z$. One can check directly that $D$ is a subring of $R$. Let us show $\mathbb Q\cap R\subseteq D$. If $e=k/q\in \mathbb Q\cap R$ with coprime $k, q$, then again using Bézout, $1/q\in R$. Then it is enough to show that $1/p\in D$ for all prime divisors $p$ of $q$. But this is done just above. 
The converse is proved in Wilberd's answer ($e\in \mathbb Z[1/a]$). 
Final remark: $\mathbb Q\cap R=\mathbb Z$ if and only if
$\mathrm{Spec}(R)\to \mathrm{Spec}(\mathbb Z)$ is surjective. This is
because the fiber of this morphism above $p$ is the spectrum of
$R/pR$, and this spectrum is empty if and only if $1/p\in R$. 
A: Edit: I misread the question and thought $R$ should be finitely generated as $\mathbb{Z}$-module (instead of as $\mathbb{Z}$-algebra). The proof below requires $R$ to be a finitely generated as $\mathbb{Z}$-module. 

$R/\mathbb{Z}$ can't contain other divisible elements than $0$. 
This can be seen as follows: By assumption $(R,+)$ is a finitely generated abelian group and since $R$ is integral, the group $(R,+)$ is torsion free. Thus $R$ is a finitely generated free $\mathbb{Z}$-module with $\mathbb{Z} \cdot 1_R$ as rank one sub-module. By elementary divisors there are $e_1,...,e_m \in R$ and $l \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $R = \oplus_{i=1}^m \mathbb{Z}e_i$ and $1_R = le_1$. 
Let $x= \sum_i x_ie_i \in R$ such that $\bar{x} \in R/\mathbb{Z}$ is divisible. Thus, for $n \in \mathbb{Z}$ there is $y = \sum_i y_ie_i \in R$ with 
$$\mathbb{Z}\cdot 1_R = \mathbb{Z}le_1 \in x-ny = (x_1 -ny_1)e_1 + ... + (x_m-ny_m)e_m.\hspace{20pt}(\ast)$$
In particular, $x_i-ny_i=0$, i.e. $n | x_i$ for $i >1$ and all $n$. Hence $x_i=0$ for $i>1$. 
Now choose $n:= l$. Comparing the first component in $(\ast)$ shows $l | x_1$, say $x_1= kl$. Therefore $x=k(le_1) = k \cdot 1_R$ and $\bar{x} = 0$ in $R/\mathbb{Z}$. q.e.d. 
A: Let $e$ be an element of $\langle R,+\rangle / \langle \mathbb{Z},+\rangle$ such that $e\neq 0$.

Since the representatives of $e$ only differ in the constant term, let $m_1,...,m_n$ be non-negative integers which are not all zero such that the $(a_1)^{m_1}\cdot ... \cdot (a_n)^{m_n}$ coefficient of $e$'s representives is non-zero.

Since that coefficient is not divisible by itself plus one, $e$ is not divisible by that coefficient plus one.

Therefore the quotient group cannot contain a divisible element.
I don't know what the answer would be if you let $\; R = \mathbb{Z}[a_1,...,a_n]/I \;$ instead of $\; R = \mathbb{Z}[a_1,...,a_n] \;$.
