Normality via resolution of singularities This is a somewhat vague question, but given my general ignorance in algebraic geometry, I hoped that maybe someone could give me some hint...
Suppose that I have a variety $X$ (over an algebraically closed field of characteristic 0)
and I want to prove that it's normal. Assume (for simplicity) that I know that
away from one point $x\in X$. 
Assume now that I have an explicit resolution $\pi:Y\to X$ and I know everything
about its scheme-theoretic fibers (in my particular case they are irreducible but
unfortunately not reduced; however, the corresponding reduced scheme is always smooth).
Is there some statement about that resolution (maybe its fibers) that would 
imply normality of $X$ (once again: it is clear that if the fibers were irreducible and
reduced, that would be it; in my case they are not reduced, but completely describe them.
Does it help?)
 A: Unfortunately it is not true that if $Y$ is smooth, $f$ is proper and  the fibers of $f:Y \rightarrow X$ are reduced and connected that $X$ is normal.  Unfortunately I am all to familiar with the following example, which has ended any optimism I have had about finding a criteria for normality using a desingularization.  The question is local so I will just use the affine coordinates.  Let $ R = k[x^4,x^3y,xy^3, y^4] $.   This ring is the cone of a  projection of the quartic normal curve, so it is not normal at the origin. One checks easily using local coordinates that the resolution is just $\bf P^1$.  I learned of this example from Mohan Kumar, but it also appears in one or more of Eisenbud's books, as well as a counter example to other questions asked here.  It seems to be a universal counter example to any seemingly true facts about depth etc for which one cannot find a proof. 
A: Well, the affine line normalizes the cusp $x^2=y^3$, and the fibers are about as nice as they can be conditional on not being reduced.  Yet the cusp is not normal.  So it seems unlikely to me that there could be a criterion of this kind.
A: This should be true: let $X=Spec(B)$ and $Y=Spec(A)$ be Noetherian affine schemes, if
$$
f\colon X\to Y
$$
is faithfully flat and $X$ is normal, then $Y$ is normal.
A proof is given in Corollary 15.4 of
Normality of m-completions by Silvio Greco and Paolo Salmon
http://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-3-642-88501-3_15
