I promised to write a longer answer, but I simply don't have time this week - sorry. What I wanted to point our was that although the idea that "every flavor of cohomology ever considered is nothing but the study of connected components in the hom-spaces of some $(\infty,1)$-topos" is one of the most amazing ideas ever (imho), it is still not clear (at least to me) exactly how this works in all cases, even for abelian sheaf cohomology. For example, most people seem to believe that the right $(\infty,1)$-topos for cohomology theories in algebraic geometry should be given by A1 (or "motivic") homotopy theory, but there is nothing in the literature about representability of $p$-adic cohomology theories such as rigid cohomology. I believe this might be because there is some technical problem, but I am not sure. There are also other issues and examples which are not clear (to me!).

The other thing I wanted to do was to clarify various pieces of terminology related to cohomology in algebraic geometry, for example, "generalized cohomology" means different things in different articles, and there are many different notions of "universal cohomology". Maybe I can expand on this later.

One small remark: Motivic cohomology is usually thought of as the universal Bloch-Ogus cohomology, while the universal Weil cohomology should probably be pure motives with respect to rational equivalence ("probably", because it depends on what exactly you mean by "universal" and "Weil cohomology"). The two notions are closely related though.

(Aside: The reason I am very busy this week is that I suddenly find myself writing job applications, after essentially solving my thesis problem last week, and one of the main reasons I could solve my thesis problem was that I applied Urs' unified point of view on cohomology in a new setting.)