Pedagogically speaking, I see two problems with defining $\Gamma(z)$ (at least for real $z$) by the limit $$\Gamma(z)=\lim_{m\to\infty}\frac{m! m^z}{\prod_{i=0}^m (z+i)}$$ as compared with the formula $$\Gamma(z)=\lim_{m\to\infty}\frac{\lfloor m+z\rfloor! (z+m+1)^{\{z\}}}{\prod_{i=0}^m (z+i)}$$ (which one easily sees gives equivalent values in the limit). (The exponent $\{z\}$ means the fractional part of $z$.) Of the two, only the second formula yields $\Gamma(z+1)=z!$ for non-negative integers $z$ via trivial limits of constant sequences. And so far as I can see only the second formula arises immediately from a simple one-sentence story that a student might use to discover the formula as an exercise: march $\Gamma(z)$ to $\Gamma(z+m)$ using $\Gamma(z+1)=z\Gamma(z)$, then estimate $\Gamma(z+m)$ as a weighted geometric mean of the nearest factorials.
Questions: does the traditional limit support an equally compelling narrative? Ought one prefer it on other grounds? Neither limit serves well for numerical computation, but curiously, for a given $m$, they give errors of approximately equal magnitude but opposite sign. Does this have a conceptual explanation?