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Suppose $f:X\to Y$ is a morphism of smooth connected schemes (over some base). Say $Z\subseteq Y$ is a closed subscheme with complement $U$ so that $f$ pulls back (restricts) to isomorphisms on $Z$ and $U$. Does it follow that $f$ is an isomorphism?

If we drop the condition that $X$ and $Y$ have to be smooth, the normalization of a cusp is a counterexample. If we remove the hypothesis that $X$ and $Y$ must be connected, taking $X=U\sqcup Z$ gives a counterexample.

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    $\begingroup$ For notational purposes, suppose that $W = f^{-1}(Z)$ (presumably with the induced scheme structure from $Z$) and $V = f^{-1}(U)$. Our assumption seems to be that $f|_V$ and $f|_W$ is an isomorphism If $Y$ is normal (weaker than smooth) or even seminormal and $f$ is finite, then I think $f$ is an isomorphism because it is a bijection on points and induces isomorphism of residue field extensions. In the general case, you should have a map which is a bijection on points with isomorphic residue field extensions, I know Marie Vitulli once did some study about when such maps occur... $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 10, 2010 at 2:44
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    $\begingroup$ To add to what Karl said, your map is quasi-finite by assumption (this is a fibral condition, under mild finite type assumptions on the map), so by ZMT it factors as X -> X' -> Y with X -> X' open dense immersion, and X' - > Y finite. Also, X' -> Y is birational since X -> Y is so, so X' = Y if Y normal. So you get an open immersion X -> Y surjective that is surjective on points, hence iso. $\endgroup$
    – Bhargav
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    $\begingroup$ I do not believe the normalization of a cusp is a counterexample. The inverse image of the singular point is a point with a nilpotent element in its structure sheaf, and so not isomorphic to the singular point on the cusp. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 10, 2010 at 3:34
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    $\begingroup$ Steven Landsburg is right, I think the right counter-example showing you need some condition is $\mathbb{A}^1 \setminus \text{pt} \to \text{node}$, where the missing point is one of the points sent to the nodal point. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 10, 2010 at 6:24
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    $\begingroup$ +1 to every comment above this one! $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 12, 2010 at 4:24

2 Answers 2

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Reducing to the affine case, the question is this:

Given a ring homomorphism $R\rightarrow S$, and given an ideal $I\subset R$, suppose that all of the following are isomorphisms: $$R/I\rightarrow S/IS$$ $$R_f\rightarrow S_f\quad \hbox{for any $f\in I$}$$ Can we conclude that $R\rightarrow S$ is an isomorphism?

Assuming irreducibility (i.e. assuming $R$ and $S$ are domains) the answer is certainly yes if $I=(f)$ is principal. Then it's easy to see that $R\rightarrow S$ is injective (because the injection $R\rightarrow R_f\approx S_f$ factors through it). For surjectivity, let $s\in S$. Then because $R_f\approx S_f$, we can write $f^ks=r$ for some $r\in R$. Then $r$ maps to zero in $S/fS$, so $r\in fR$, so (because $f$ is not a zero-divisor) $f^{k-1}s\in R$, contradicting the fact that we could have chosen $k$ minimal.

More generally, if $I=(f_1,\ldots,f_k)$ is finitely generated, then $f_i^N s\in R$ and therefore $f_i^N s\in I\subset R$ for every $i$, which at the very least forces $s$ to be integral over $R$.

I expect you can settle the general case either by generalizing this argument or by constructing $I$ and $S$ in a way that forces it to go wrong.

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  • $\begingroup$ You also used reducedness, right? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 10, 2010 at 9:53
  • $\begingroup$ Martinn Brandenburg: Right. I assumed domans. I should have explicitly mentioned reducedness. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 10, 2010 at 12:24
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    $\begingroup$ Thinking about the injectivity of the map, I realised that the nilradical is the problem. For example, if K is a field, R=K[X]/(X^3) and S=K[X]/(X^2) with the canonical projection as the map from R to S, then R/(X) is isomorphic to S/(X) via this map and all localisations at elements inside (X) are isomorphic, since they are zero because we are inverting nilpotent elements. But clearly R and S are not isomorphic. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 10, 2010 at 23:08
  • $\begingroup$ @Steven: Very nice, but I'm unsure about the reduction to the affine case. It seems like it requires showing that $f$ is an affine morphism, which isn't clear from the hypotheses. @Lennart: that's an excellent counterexample. Thanks. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 12, 2010 at 4:19
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This is essentially the argument in Bhargav's comment. Matt Satriano showed me the separatedness argument.

We first apply the valuative criterion for separatedness to show that $f:X\to Y$ is separated. In fact, this shows that any morphism which is injective on topological spaces must be separated. Suppose $\Delta$ is the spectrum of a valuation ring with closed point $\ast$. Given any map $\Delta\to Y$, there is a unique set theoretic lift to $X$. Therefore, any failure of the valuative criterion will be witnessed on the induced map from an affine open neighborhood of $\ast$ in $X$ to an affine open neighborhood of $\ast$ in $Y$. Since any morphism of affine schemes is separated, the valuative criterion holds, so $f$ is separated.

Since $f$ induces isomorphisms on geometric points, it is quasi-finite. Supposing $Y$ is normal, integral and locally noetherian and $f$ is finite type, Zariski's Main Theorem tells us that $f$ is an open immersion. Since $f$ is surjective, it is an isomorphism.

I'm always surprised at how everything seems to be ZMT, so here's a precise reference: EGA III, Corollary 4.4.9. If $Y$ is normal, integral, and locally noetherian, $f:X\to Y$ is separated, birational, finite type, and quasi-finite, then $f$ is an open immersion.

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