Given real sequences $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ and $(b_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$, both converging to the same limit $A$ and such that $|a_n-A|\neq 0$ and $|b_n-A|\neq 0$ for every $n$ sufficiently large, we say that $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges faster to $A$ than $(b_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ if $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{|a_n-A|}{|b_n-A|}=0.$$
If a real sequence $(c_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converging to a limit $C$ satisfies the condition that $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{|c_{n+1}-C|}{|c_n-C|}=\lambda$$ for some $\lambda\in(0,1)$, we say that $(c_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges linearly to $C$, and, if a sequence $(c^\prime_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges to a limit $C^\prime$ and satisfies the condition $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{|c^\prime_{n+1}-C^\prime|}{|c^\prime_n-C^\prime|}=0,$$ we say that $(c^\prime_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges superlinearly to $C^\prime$.
Question: Given the definitions above, is it generally true that a sequence converging superlinearly to a given limit converges faster than a squence converging linearly to the same limit? How do I prove that?