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This is a continuation of Should coffee machines be deconcentrated?

Recall that some region is denoted by convex and compact $E\subset \mathbb R^2$. $N\ge 1$ coffee machines are provided for the people living on $E$, of capacities $\alpha_1,\ldots, \alpha_N>0$. Assume the population of $E$ is uniformly distributed such that

$$\sum_{n=1}^N \alpha_n = \ell(E),$$

where $\ell$ is the Lebesgue measure. If locating the machines at $x_1,\ldots, x_N\in E$ with $X:=(x_1,\ldots, x_N)$, the transportation cost is given as

$$F(X):=W_2(\mu_X,\ell) \quad\mbox{with}\quad \mu_X:=\sum_{n=1}^N \alpha_n\delta_{x_n}, \quad\quad \forall X\in E^N,$$

where $W_2$ denotes the Wasserstein metric of order $2$. As $F:E^N\to\mathbb R_+$ is Lipschitz and $E^N$ is compact, its minimum is attained. Can we find a minimiser $X^*=(x_1^*,\ldots, x_N^*)\in E^N$ belonging to the interior of $E^N$? Namely $x_n^* \notin \partial E$ for all $n=1,\ldots, N$.

enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ By $\ell$, do you actually mean the uniform distribution over $E$? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 19 at 14:18

2 Answers 2

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$\newcommand{\ga}{\gamma}\newcommand{\Ga}{\Gamma}\newcommand{\al}{\alpha}\newcommand{\p}{\partial}\newcommand{\de}{\delta}$Without loss of generality (wlog), $\ell$ is the uniform probability distribution over $E$ and hence $\sum_{i=1}^N\al_i=1$. Here it is assumed that the interior $E^\circ$ of $E$ is nonempty.

Let $\Ga$ be the set of all probability distributions $\ga$ over $E\times E$ such that for some $(x_1,\dots,x_N)\in E^N$ the marginals of $\ga$ are $\sum_{i\in[N]}\al_i\de_{x_i}$ and $\ell$, where $[N]:=\{1,\dots,N\}$. Informally, $\ga(X\times A)$ is the mass transported from a set $X$ to a set $A$ under the plan $\ga$.

Let $\ga^*\in\Ga$ with marginals $\sum_{i\in[N]}\al_i\de_{x_i^*}$ and $\ell$ be an optimal transportation plan in the sense that \begin{equation*} C(\ga):=\int_E|x-y|^2\,\ga(dx\times dy)\ge C(\ga^*) \end{equation*} for all $\ga\in\Ga$, where $|\cdot|$ is the Euclidean norm.

Claim: $x_i^*\in E^\circ$ for all $i\in[N]$.

Proof: Suppose the contrary. Then wlog $x_1^*\in\p E$. So, wlog $x_1^*=(0,0)$ and $(s,t)\in E$ implies $s\le0$ -- that is, the first coordinate of any point in $E$ is $\le0$. Let \begin{equation*} \ga_i^*(A):=\ga^*(\{x_i^*\}\times A) \end{equation*} for all Borel subsets $A$ of $E$. To simplify writing, suppose that the $x_i^*$'s are pairwise distinct. Then \begin{equation*} C(\ga^*)=\sum_{i\in[N]}\int_E|x_i^*-y|^2\,\ga_i^*(dy). \end{equation*} (Otherwise, first rewrite $\sum_{i\in[N]}\al_i\de_{x_i}$ as $\sum_{i\in[n]}\beta_j\de_{z_j}$ with pairwise distinct $z_j$'s and appropriate $n$ and $\beta_j$'s.) Also, $\ga_1^*(\p E)\le\ga^*(\{x_1^*,\dots,x_N^*\}\times\p E)=\ell(\p E)=0$ and hence $$\ga_1^*(E^\circ)=\ga_1^*(E)-\ga_1^*(\p E)=\ga_1^*(E)=\al_1>0.$$ Therefore and because the first coordinate of any point in $E$ is $\le0$, the first coordinate of the barycenter $\bar x_1^*$ of the measure $\ga_1^*$ is $<0$. So, $\bar x_1^*\ne(0,0)=x_1^*$. Also, $\bar x_1^*\in E$, since $E$ is convex. Moreover, it is easy to see (say, by differentiation) that $\bar x_1^*$ is the unique minimizer of $\int_E|x-y|^2\,\ga_1^*(dy)$ over $x\in E$.

It follows that \begin{equation*} C(\bar\ga^*)<C(\ga^*), \tag{3}\label{3} \end{equation*} where $\bar\ga^*\in\Ga$ is defined by the conditions \begin{equation*} \bar\ga^*(\{x_i^*\}\times A)=\ga^*(\{x_i^*\}\times A) \quad\text{if }i\in\{2,\dots,N\}, \end{equation*} \begin{equation*} \bar\ga^*(\{\bar x_1^*\}\times A)=\ga^*(\{x_1^*\}\times A) \end{equation*} for all Borel $A\subseteq E$.

Inequality \eqref{3} contradicts the optimality of $\ga^*$. $\quad\Box$

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  • $\begingroup$ I get your point Iosif, complete and nice reasoning. Many thanks. Maybe just a typo: "barycentre" not "baricenter"? $\endgroup$
    – Fawen90
    Commented Sep 20 at 7:08
  • $\begingroup$ @Fawen90 : Thank you for your comment. The spelling is now fixed. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 20 at 12:40
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The minimizers cannot lie on the boundary. In fact, denote by $E_i \subset E$ the set of all points which are transported to $x_i^*$. Then, $x_i^*$ has to be the center of mass of $E_i$ and, thus, cannot lie on the boundary. I would also like to mention that this problem is well understood, see, e.g., http://doi.org/10.1137/141000993 and the references therein.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the comment. I don't know how to prove rigorously why $x_i^*$ must be the center. Take the uploaded photo for example, if the $x_i^*$ is lying at the boundary, what will happen to contradict the optimality? As the sub-region $E_i$ may totally have the mass $\alpha_i$ $\endgroup$
    – Fawen90
    Commented Sep 19 at 12:28
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    $\begingroup$ In your objective, you have the contribution $\int_{E_i} \| x_i^* - x\|^2 \, \mathrm d \ell(x)$. The derivative of this term w.r.t. $x_i^*$ is zero if and only if $x_i^*$ is the center of mass. $\endgroup$
    – gerw
    Commented Sep 19 at 13:00
  • $\begingroup$ It is not so clear to me as $E_i$ also depends on $x_i$. Differentiating w.r.t. $x_i$ yields some expression depending not only on $‖x_i-x‖^2$ but also $E_i$. $\endgroup$
    – Fawen90
    Commented Sep 19 at 13:19
  • $\begingroup$ Do you mind providing a complete reasoning by detailing your ideas? Many thx $\endgroup$
    – Fawen90
    Commented Sep 19 at 13:19
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    $\begingroup$ No, you fix $E_i$ and only vary $x_i$. You can think of the entire process as a two-stage problem: In the first stage, you fix the regions $E_i$ and in the second stage you just optimize over the $x_i$. In the second stage, the $E_i$ are fixed and the optimization w.r.t. $x_i$ can be solved in closed form. The remaining optimization over $E_i$ is delicate. $\endgroup$
    – gerw
    Commented Sep 19 at 15:08

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