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I recently discovered a formula, my proof is really a high school proof in three lines.

$$4\sum_{x, \, y \, \in \, \mathbb Z_{\geq 0}^2, \, \det(x \ \ y) = 1} \frac{1}{\lVert x\rVert^2\cdot\lVert y\rVert^2\cdot \lVert x+y\rVert^2} = \pi$$

We sum over all pairs of lattice vectors in the first quadrant such that the oriented area of the parallelogram spanned by them is one. Note that each primitive vector in the first quadrant appears as $x+y$ for some unique pair $x$ and $y.$ So it can be seen as a kind of zeta function for Gaussian integers.

It should be known to humanity but I cannot find anything similar. Who can suggest a source where to look for such formulae?

I will later post my proof here but before I encourage you to suggest another proofs =) Maybe this way we can discover some nice connections!

Added: I wrote about this in https://arxiv.org/abs/2410.10884

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    $\begingroup$ @VladimirDotsenko indeed! corrected $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 17 at 21:54
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    $\begingroup$ For what it's worth, I'd start my reference search at "Lattice sums then and now" (by the usual suspects). Sadly I don't have a copy on me now, but maybe someone else does. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 7:55
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    $\begingroup$ I suspect there is hyperbolic geometry hiding here. Recall that there is a standard triangulation of the upper half-plane with triangles whose vertices are at rational points on the real axis. (Here is a nice intro math.uchicago.edu/~may/REU2023/REUPapers/Seignourel.pdf . ) The triangles are exactly the triples $(\tfrac{x_1}{x_2}, \tfrac{y_1}{y_2} \tfrac{x_1+x_2}{y_1+y_2})$ with $\det(x, y)=1$; the added condition that $x$ and $y$ be in the first quadrant is the same as looking at triangles that touch the real axis in $[0,\infty]$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 10:29
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    $\begingroup$ We can also eliminate the condition that $x$ and $y$ are in the first quadrant. As noted above, that is the sum over triangles in the right half of the upper half plane. Summing over the whole upper half plane should just double the sum, giving $\pi/2$. But each triangle can be represented in $6$ ways as $(\vec{x}, \vec{y}, \vec{x}+\vec{y})$, so if we just sum over all of $\text{SL}_2(\mathbb{Z})$, the result should be $3 \pi$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 10:43
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    $\begingroup$ Looks like the author of this question just posted a paper on arXiv regarding similar identities: arxiv.org/abs/2409.10592 $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 17:54

2 Answers 2

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This is not a proof, but since you are interested in connections I have a conjectural generalization. I have verified it numerically in a number of small cases.

Let $f(x,y)=ax^2+bxy+cy^2$ be a positive definite quadratic form with $a,b,c\in\mathbb{Z}$, and let $A$ be the area of the ellipse $f(x,y) \leq 1$. Then $$ \sum (f(x_1,y_1)f(x_2,y_2)f(x_3,y_3))^{-1} = \frac{A^3}{\pi^2}, $$ where the sum is over all sets $\{(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2),(x_3,y_3)\}$ such that $x_1+x_2+x_3=y_1+y_2+y_3=0$ and $\left|\det \begin{pmatrix} x_1 & x_2 \\ y_1 & y_2 \end{pmatrix}\right| = 1$ (which implies the same for the other two pairs).

The motivation for this comes from Conway's topograph for quadratic forms. The three factors in each term of the sum are the numbers at the three faces that meet at each node of the topograph for $f$. Note that each vertex of the topograph is counted twice since we count $(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2),(x_3,y_3)$ and $(-x_1,-y_1),(-x_2,-y_2),(-x_3,-y_3)$ separately (in Conway's language, the sum is over strict superbases, not lax superbases).

Presumably this can be proved along the same lines as David E Speyer's answer, but I have not yet tried to do so.

Update: This version of your formula was published by Hurwitz in 1905 in a paper titled "Über eine Darstellung der Klassenzahl binärer quadratischer Formen durch unendliche Reihen" (see §4, equation (8)). It can also be found Dickson, "History of the Theory of Numbers," Vol. III, page 167. The proof given there is essentially the same as David E Speyer's. (As an aside, his proof can be simplified by observing that the length of the edge connecting the images of $a/b$ and $c/d$ is $$ \frac{2}{\sqrt{(a^2+b^2)(c^2+d^2)}} $$ and then applying the formula $K=\frac{abc}{4R}$ he mentions in the comments.)

I found these references by looking for papers that mention summing over the vertices of a topograph. This led me to a very recent preprint by Cormac O'Sullivan, which contains Hurwitz's formula phrased in topographical terms (Theorem 9.1). O'Sullivan's source is this paper by Duke, Imamoḡlu, and Tóth.

All of these references contain a number of related formulas and connections to the theory of quadratic forms (not just positive definite, and not just binary) that might be of interest to you.

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    $\begingroup$ thank you! Yes, I think I can prove it the same way for any quadratic form. But the connection to Conway's topography is worth thinking about, I cannot say now what is the relation but I like it very much!!! $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 19:34
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    $\begingroup$ thank you very much for tracking this down! $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 22 at 14:45
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I am very curious how this identity was discovered. Here is a proof. If I have time, I'll clean it up a bit.

As is well known, there is a triangulation of the hyperbolic plane, with vertices at the points $\mathbb{Q} \cup \{ \infty \} \subset \mathbb{RP}^1$, such that there is an edge between $\tfrac{x_1}{y_1}$ and $\tfrac{x_2}{y_2}$ iff and only if $x_1 y_2 - x_2 y_1 = \pm 1$. Moreover, this edge is in two triangles, whose the third vertices are $\tfrac{x_1+x_2}{y_1+y_2}$ and $\tfrac{x_1-x_2}{y_1-y_2}$. Summing over all nonnegative integer matrices with $x_1 y_2 - x_2 y_1=1$ is the same as summing over all triangles in the right half of the hyperbolic plane. I'd rather sum over the whole hyperbolic plane, so my goal is to show that the sum is $\pi/2$, not $\pi/4$, once all triangles are used.

Now, use the standard parametrization of the Pythagorean triples on the unit circle: $$\phi(x,y) := \left( \frac{x^2-y^2}{x^2+y^2}, \frac{2xy}{x^2+y^2} \right).$$ If we have a triangle in the hyperbolic plane with vertices at $(x_1, y_1)$, $(x_2, y_2)$, $(x_3, y_3)$, then we view $\phi(x_1, y_1)$, $\phi(x_2, y_2)$, $\phi(x_3, y_3)$ as the vertices of an ordinary Euclidean triangle inscribed in the unit circle. Let's compute the area of that triangle. It is

$$\frac{1}{2} \det \begin{bmatrix} \frac{x_1^2-y_1^2}{x_1^2+y_1^2} & \frac{x_2^2-y_2^2}{x_2^2+y_2^2} & \frac{x_3^2-y_3^2}{x_3^2+y_3^2} \\ \frac{2 x_1 y_1}{x_1^2+y_1^2} & \frac{2 x_2 y_2}{x_2^2+y_2^2} & \frac{2 x_3 y_3}{x_3^2+y_3^2} \\ 1&1&1 \\ \end{bmatrix}=$$ $$ \frac{1}{2 (x_1^2+y_1^2)(x_2^2+y_2^2)(x_3^2+y_3^2)} \det \begin{bmatrix} x_1^2-y_1^2 & x_2^2-y_2^2 & x_3^2-y_3^2 \\ 2 x_1 y_1 & 2 x_2 y_2 & 2 x_3 y_3 \\ x_1^2+y_1^2 & x_2^2+y_2^2 & x_3^2+y_3^2 \\ \end{bmatrix}.$$ The matrix factors as $$\begin{bmatrix} 1&0&-1 \\ 0&2&0 \\ 1&0&1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x_1^2 & x_2^2 & x_3^2 \\ x_1 y_1 & x_2 y_2 & x_3 y_3 \\ y_1^2 & y_2^2 & y_3^2 \\ \end{bmatrix}.$$ The first factor has determinant $4$ and the second is a Vandermonde matrix with determinant: $$(x_1 y_2 - x_2 y_1) (x_1 y_3 - x_3 y_1) (x_2 y_3 - x_3 y_2).$$ But each of the Vandermonde factors is assumed to be $1$. So, putting it all together, the area of the triangle is $$\frac{1}{2} \cdot 4 \cdot \frac{1}{2 (x_1^2+y_1^2)(x_2^2+y_2^2)(x_3^2+y_3^2)} = \frac{2}{(x_1^2+y_1^2)(x_2^2+y_2^2)(x_3^2+y_3^2)}.$$

The triangles cover the whole circle, so their total area is $\pi$, and we obtain that the sum of $\frac{1}{(x_1^2+y_1^2)(x_2^2+y_2^2)(x_3^2+y_3^2)}$ over all triangles is $\pi/2$, as desired.

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    $\begingroup$ I came at this in an odd way. If a triangle has side lengths $a$, $b$, $c$, circumradius $R$ and area $K$, then $K = \tfrac{abc}{4R}$. So $\tfrac{K}{\pi R^2} = \tfrac{16 K^3}{\pi a^2 b^2 c^2}$. In other words, $\tfrac{16 K^3}{\pi a^2 b^2 c^2}$ is the fraction of the circumcircle occupied by the triangle. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 19:13
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    $\begingroup$ In our problem, we have each triangle $(0, \vec{x}, \vec{x}+\vec{y})$ has area $1$, and we sum up $\tfrac{1}{|x|^2 |y|^2 |x+y|^2}$, so we are summing up the fraction that each of these circles occupies in its circumcircle. So that made me think of rescaling the triangles to all fit in the same circle, and adding up the areas. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 19:13
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    $\begingroup$ The odd thing is that the idea of putting triangles inside a circle works, but the way to put the circle into the triangle is by the "Pythagorean map", not by rescaling! $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 19:14
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    $\begingroup$ very nice, thank you! I will post my solution tomorrow. My solution is simpler, but $\pi$ appears there as the angle. And you've got $\pi$ as the area! That is fantastic! $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 18 at 19:31
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    $\begingroup$ Here is another interpretation of this answer. If we view $x/y \in \mathbb{RP}^1$ as an ideal point in the Poincaré half-plane model, the point $\phi(x,y)$ is the corresponding ideal point in the Klein disk model. Hence the triangulation in this answer is simply the Farey triangulation in the Klein disk model. $\endgroup$
    – N M
    Commented Sep 19 at 15:26

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