Let $(E,\|.\|)$ be a (not necessarily separable) Banach space and $\Sigma_E$ the Borel $\sigma$-algebra (w.r.t. the norm topology). Let $(\Omega,\Sigma_\Omega)$ be a measurable space (which we can assume to be standard Borel if required later on).
A $\Sigma_\Omega$-$\Sigma_E$-measurable map $X: \Omega \to E$ is said to be "strongly measurable" iff there exists a closed separable sub-Banach space $F \subseteq E$ such that for the image we have the inclusion: $X(\Omega) \subseteq F$.
It is now clear that for such a strongly measurable map $X$ there exists a countable subset $S \subseteq \Sigma_E$ that separates the points of the image $X(\Omega)$. The latter means that for every two distinct points $y_1,y_2 \in X(\Omega)$, $y_1 \neq y_2$, there exists an $A \in S$ with either $y_1 \in A$ and $y_2 \notin A$, or, $y_1 \notin A$ and $y_2 \in A$. For brevity, lets call this condition "countably separated image".
My question is now about the reverse: Is it true that a $\Sigma_\Omega$-$\Sigma_E$-measurable map $X: \Omega \to E$ with countably separated image is always strongly measurable?
Added comment: Since it was pointed out in the comments that there are already counter examples for general measurable spaces $(\Omega,\Sigma_\Omega)$, I now want to insist that $(\Omega,\Sigma_\Omega)$ is a standard Borel space.
Comment about the answer: The provided reference in the answer shows that the extra condition for $X$ to have countably separated image is not needed in the case, where $(\Omega,\Sigma_\Omega)$ is a standard Borel space. In that case we directly get the equivalence:
"$X$ is strongly measurable iff $X$ is measurable."
Edit 1: Clarification what was meant with "countably separated image".
Edit 2: Comment about the assumption of $(\Omega,\Sigma_\Omega)$ being standard Borel.
Edit 3: Comment about the answer.