This is inspired by an older, as of yet unanswered question.
If $X$ is a set and $A,B\subseteq X$, we let the Hamming distance of $A, B$ be defined as $d_H:=\text{card}\big((A\setminus B)\cup (B\setminus A)\big)$.
Given $n\in\mathbb{N}$, we say that a collection ${\cal S}\subseteq {\cal P}(\mathbb{N})$ is $n$-equidistant if distinct members of ${\cal S}$ have Hamming distance $n$. For $n\in\mathbb{N}$ we let $M_n$ be the maximal cardinality that an $n$-equidistant collection can have.
It is not hard to prove that if ${\cal S}\subseteq {\cal P}(\mathbb{N})$ is uncountable, then ${\cal S}$ contains two members of infinite Hamming distance. So $M_n\leq \aleph_0$ for all $n\in \mathbb{N}$.
If $n$ is even, say $n=2k$, then we have $M_n = \aleph_0$: Partition $\mathbb{N}$ into sets of cardinality $k$ each.
We have $M_1=2$.
What are the values of $M_{2k+1}$ for integers $k\ge1$?