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Theorem about fibred fibrations

I am trying to prove the above theorem, I think I can do the backward direction. I wanted to be sure about the forward direction:

$(\implies)$ Suppose $F$ is a fibration. Then since fibrations are closed under composition, condition $(1)$ follows. To see that $F$ is a cartesian functor, consider a $Q$-cartesian morphism $\varphi \colon Z \to Y$ in $\mathbf{Y}$ over $P(f)$ where $f \colon X \to FY$ is $P$-cartesian over $P(f)$ such that $P(F(\varphi)) = Q(\varphi)=P(f)$. Since both maps are cartesian over $P(f)$, we have $f \cong F(\varphi)$. To show condition $(2)$, if we suppose $F_J \colon Y_J \to X_J$ is a fibration and $u \colon X_I \to X_J$ is a functor. The pullback of $F_J$ along $u$ is also a fibration. So $F_I$ is a fibration. Because $F$ is cartesian functor (from $(1)$), it follows that $u^* \colon Y_I \to Y_J$ is cartesian. Hence the square is a morphism in $\mathbf{Fib}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ For posterity, are $X_I$ and $Y_I$ meant to denote the fibers of $P$ and $Q=P\circ F$ at $I\in{\bf Ob}_\mathcal{B}$? $\endgroup$
    – Alec Rhea
    Commented Aug 5 at 17:23
  • $\begingroup$ Other than that, looks good except one small nitpick; instead of supposing that $F_J$ is a fibration, show that it is by virtue of $F$ being a fibration and also a Cartesian functor between fibrations, one of which contains $F$ as a factor. $\endgroup$
    – Alec Rhea
    Commented Aug 5 at 19:04
  • $\begingroup$ Okay, if we consider a lift of a morphism $u \colon J \to I$ as given by the above commutative diagram with $\varphi_1$ being $Q-$cartesian. Then $PF\varphi_1 = Q(\varphi_1)$. Since $F$ is a fibration, then $F$ is also a fibration with w.r.t $\varphi_1$. Does that make sense? $\endgroup$
    – Siya
    Commented Aug 5 at 21:01
  • $\begingroup$ Is it true that any $Q-$cartesian arrow would be $F-$cartesian? Provided that $F$ is a fibration and a cartesian functor. $\endgroup$
    – Siya
    Commented Aug 5 at 21:13
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, all you need is that $F$ is a fibration (and to stop writing $Q$ and just write $P\circ F$ ;^), see my answer below. $\endgroup$
    – Alec Rhea
    Commented Aug 6 at 5:13

1 Answer 1

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Your proof is nice, except for the first piece of $(2)$ where the lemma asks you to show that all $F_I$ are fibrations, but you begin by assuming that $F_J$ is. Rather, proceed as follows:

We wish to show that $F_I:{\bf Y}_I\to{\bf X}_I$ is a fibration for each $I\in{\bf Ob}_\mathcal{B}$. To this end, suppose we have an object $X\in{\bf Ob}_{{\bf Y}_I}$ and an arrow $u:X'\to F(X)\in{\bf Hom}_{{\bf X}_I}$. Since $F$ is a fibration by assumption, there exists an $F$-Cartesian arrow $f:A\to B\in{\bf Hom}_{\bf Y}$ with $F(f)=u$. We wish to show that $f\in{\bf Hom}_{{\bf Y}_I}$; recall that since $u\in{\bf Hom}_{{\bf X}_I}$ we have $P(u)=1_I$, thus $$P(F(f))=P(u)=1_I\implies f\in{\bf Hom}_{{\bf Y}_I}.$$

For bonus points prove all of this for Street fibrations, the 'correct' notion of fibration if you take the principle of equivalence seriously (or have questions about free will).

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