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It is a remarkable fact, due to Hajnal and Kertész and explained very well in this MathOverflow answer by user Ashutosh, that the axiom of choice is equivalent to the assertion that every nonempty set carries a group structure.

My question is about the class analogue of this statement.

Questions.

  1. In models of ZFC, is global choice equivalent to the assertion that every definable nonempty class carries a definable group structure?
  2. In Gödel-Bernays set theory GB+AC, dropping the definability requirement on the classes, is global choice equivalent to the assertion that every nonempty class carries a group structure?

By global choice in the ZFC context I intend to refer to the existence of a definable global choice function, allowing parameters, and this is equivalent to the existence of a (parametrically) definable well ordering of $V$ in order type Ord. In the GB context, the concept of class is provided explicitly by the Henkin semantics.

In the set case, the Hajnal-Kertész proof (same as Ashutosh's) makes a key use of Hartog's theorem, asserting that every set $x$ admits an ordinal that does not inject into it. But the class analogue of this theorem is simply not true for classes, since for example every class injects into $V$, being a subclass of $V$. So the proof simply doesn't generalize directly from sets to classes.

This makes me expect that the answers will be negative, and the challenge is to find a model of ZFC where every definable class admits a group structure, but nevertheless global choice fails. I have no idea how to make that happen.

Alternatively, perhaps there is another proof of the set-based result, which does not use Hartog's theorem, and which generalizes naturally to classes, in which case we could expect positive answers.

Other natural questions in the vicinity would be:

  • Does $V$ admit a definable group structure in ZFC? (Yes, using symmetric difference, answered in comments by Asaf.)
  • What about the class of all sets of ordinals? Or $[\text{Ord}]^\omega$? (Yes, answered in the comments)
  • In general, which classes in ZFC admit a group structure?

Of course if global choice holds, then it is easy to define suitable group structures on any nonempty class, the same as one would do it for sets of any nonzero size.

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    $\begingroup$ I guess $[\text{Ord}]^\omega$ will admit a group structure since Ord does and we can use the product construction. And I guess this also handles $[\text{Ord}]^{<\text{Ord}}$, which amounts to the sets-of-ordinals case. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 25 at 21:38
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    $\begingroup$ Where does the symmetric difference fail? $\endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Commented Jul 25 at 23:26
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    $\begingroup$ @AsafKaragila Good idea! This answers the question for $V$. For arbitrary classes, however, it seems still open, since in general a class is not closed under symmetric difference. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 26 at 2:18
  • $\begingroup$ For 1., ZFC cannot talk about proper classes. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 2 at 3:40
  • $\begingroup$ @Lucenaposition It can talk about definable classes, as I explain. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 2 at 4:00

2 Answers 2

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Yes. By the argument in the answer you linked, for any class $A$, either $\text{Ord}$ injects into $A$, or $A$ is well-orderable. If $A$ is well-orderable and a proper class, then $\text{Ord}$ injects into $A$ (send $\alpha$ to the $\alpha$th element), so in either case $\text{Ord}$ injects into $A$. You proved in this answer that this implies global choice.

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    $\begingroup$ Ah, you are proposing that we use $X\sqcup\text{Ord}$ as in Ashutosh's argument, but then the conclusion of that argument is that either $X$ is well-orderable or Ord injects into $X$. So if every nonempty class carries a group structure, then Ord injects into every proper class. And this implies global choice. Is that right? This is great! $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 26 at 11:11
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ZFC proves that $V$ admits a definable group structure (and actually ZF does too). First note that the Schröder–Bernstein theorem still holds in the context of definable classes (i.e., for any definable classes $A$ and $B$, if there is a definable injection from $A$ into $B$ and from $B$ into $A$, then there is a definable bijection between $A$ and $B$). This means that it's sufficient to exhibit a definable class group $G$ with a definable injection $f: V \to G$.

We can now just take $G$ to be the 'free group generated by $V$.' In other words, the elements of $G$ are finite sequences of pairs $(x,\pm)$ satisfying that there are no consecutive pairs of the form $(x,+)(x,-)$ or $(x,-)(x,+)$ (where $x$ is an arbitrary set and $\pm$ is one of two fixed tokens indicating whether $(x,\pm)$ is meant to be interpreted as $x$ or $x^{-1}$). Multiplication on $G$ is defined in the obvious way. The map taking $x$ to the singleton sequence $(x,+)$ is obviously an injection of $V$ into $G$ and the identity map is an injection of $G$ into $V$, so we can define a group law on $V$ via the bijection given to us by the Schröder–Bernstein theorem for definable classes.

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    $\begingroup$ Very nice. Thank you. Can we hope to generalize this to arbitrary classes somehow? I guess it shows almost that $X^{<\omega}$ has a group structure for any class $X$? We make the free group on $X$ generators. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 25 at 22:02
  • $\begingroup$ I guess what it shows is that if $X$ is equinumerous with $X^{<\omega}$, then it admits a group structure. Since $X$ injects into the free group on $X$ generators, and so under the assumption, the converse is also true. And $V$ is equinumerous with $V^{<\omega}$, because we have injections both directions. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 25 at 22:19
  • $\begingroup$ How about injecting $V$ into the additive group of the $\mathbb{F}_2$-vector space with basis $V$? $\endgroup$
    – David Roberts
    Commented Jul 26 at 2:21
  • $\begingroup$ @DavidRoberts Or just use symmetric difference as suggested by Asaf. Everybody has order 2. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 26 at 2:29
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    $\begingroup$ @DavidRoberts My point is that $V$ is closed under symmetric difference, and that is a very easy group operation, which avoids the need for the SB argument in James's answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 26 at 11:09

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