2
$\begingroup$

If we examine $\Re(\eta(\alpha + \beta i))$ as a function of $\alpha$ or only $\beta$ is $\eta$ invertible? That is, if we define that map $J:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ as

\begin{equation}\label{Eq3} J(\alpha)= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\dfrac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^{\alpha}}\cos(\beta\ln(n))} \end{equation}

for any $\beta\in \mathbb{R}$ is $J$ invertible? Similarly, if we define that map $I:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ as

\begin{equation}\label{Eq4} I(\beta)= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\dfrac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^{\alpha}}\cos(\beta\ln(n))} \end{equation}

for any $\alpha\in (0,1)$ is $I$ invertible? My thought was maybe we can invert it but not as a multivariable function and examine each piece separately.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

4
$\begingroup$

Here are plots of $J(\alpha)$ for $\beta=3$ (left plot) and of $I(\beta)$ for $\alpha=1/2$ (right plot), as you can see these are not invertible functions.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Okay, I see it's definitely not invertible on it's domain. Maybe it's is on subdomains where the function is monotonic $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 7 at 11:12
  • $\begingroup$ You see both graphs reach maximum and minimum and perform like a wave . If we break up the function on intervals when it is monotonic it's looks like the inverse is close to $\arcsin()$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 7 at 11:19

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .