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Letting $D:=\{(x,y):\ 0\leq x\leq y\leq1 \text{ and } y>0\}$, I have a continuous function $k:D\to[0,\infty)$ that satisfies some properties that I list below. I'm interested in continuous and bounded-variation functions $\varphi:[0,1]\to\mathbb R$ that solve the Volterra equation $$0=\int_0^y \varphi(x)k(x,y) \text{ d}x\ \ \ \forall y\in[0,1].$$ For brevity, let me call any such $\varphi$ a solution for $k$.

My question: Does my $k$ necessarily have the zero function as its unique solution? And if not, are there smoothness/boundedness conditions I could put on $k$ to ensure it has a unique solution?

My $k$ satisfies the following properties (the first of which seems important):

  • Every $y\in(0,1]$ has $\int_0^y k(x,y) \text{ d}x=1.$
  • The partial derivative $k_2$ with respect to the second argument exists and is continuous on $D$.
  • Every $(x,y)\in D$ with $x>0$ has $k(x,y)>0$.
  • The function $x\mapsto \tfrac{k(x,\hat y)}{k(x,y)}$ is weakly increasing on $(0,y]$ whenever $0<y<\hat y\leq1$. Equivalently, the function $\tfrac{k_2}{k}$ is weakly increasing in its second argument wherever the latter is strictly positive.

We can also convert to a Volterra equation of the second kind (with a boundary condition) in the usual way. Defining the continuous function $\tilde k:D\to\mathbb R$ via $\tilde k(x,y):=\tfrac{-k_2(x,y)}{k(y,y)}$, it's easy to see that $\varphi$ is a solution if and only if it has $\varphi(0)=0$ (given the first bullet above) and $$\varphi(y)=\int_0^y \varphi(x)\tilde k(x,y) \text{ d}x\ \ \ \forall y\in(0,1].$$

I have no idea which of the above listed properties is useful for establishing uniqueness. However, note that the first condition tells us $k$ cannot be extended continuously to the closure of $D$, and (loosely) tells us how quickly $k(x, y)$ explodes as $y\to0$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Maybe obvious, but if you assume $\tilde k$ is bounded then I think the Volterra equation of the second kind has a unique solution. $\endgroup$ Commented May 31 at 15:34
  • $\begingroup$ Differentiating the first bullet tells us that every $y\in(0,1]$ has $\int_0^y \tilde k(x,y) \text{ d}x=1.$ Since the average value of $\tilde k(\cdot,y)$ on $[0,y]$ is $\tfrac1y$, the function $\tilde k$ cannot be bounded. $\endgroup$ Commented May 31 at 17:44
  • $\begingroup$ How about a condition $A:=\lbrace y:k_2(y,y)=0\rbrace$ has measure zero? Or $A $ contains no interval? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 2 at 15:04
  • $\begingroup$ I'd be happy to understand this question in the case that your $A$ is empty. Should the answer be obvious in that case? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 2 at 17:48
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    $\begingroup$ I will double check my argument and post in a bit if correct. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 2 at 17:57

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