Let $\pi_\ast^{(p)}$ be the ring of $p$-local stable homotopy groups of spheres. This is a nonnegatively graded ring, with $\mathbb Z_{(p)}$ in degree $0$. The first nonvanishing positive degree element is in degree $2p-3$, and $\pi_{2p-3}^{(p)} = \mathbb Z / p$ is a cyclic group.
Question: Why is the first positive degree group cyclic?
Remarks:
Obviously an answer is: “Well, you just compute it, and this is the result you get.” I’m basically wondering if there is something more enlightening to say.
For example, when $p = 2$, $\pi_1^{(2)}$ is generated by the Hopf fibration $\eta$. So I’m asking why there aren’t any more Hopf fibrations. (I’m not actually asking why the Hopf fibration becomes torsion after stabilization, although that’s also an interesting question, and maybe an answer here will also shed light on that question.)
I suppose another answer would be “well, if the first two nontrivial stable stems happened to be in the same degree, wouldn’t that be an odd coincidence?” I agree with the suggestion here, and maybe one way of answering my question would be to flesh this out a bit, and give some heuristic from which this would follow as a probabilistic statement.
I think I actually have a better sense for why the first nonvanishing degree is in degree $2p-3 = 2(p-1)-1$, having something to do with the dual Steenrod algebra having its first generator in that same degree. But these sorts of considerations don’t seem to explain the cyclicity.