I'm working on a formalization of Lindenbaum's completeness lemma for modal logic systems, but I've been stuck in a property. Namely, when trying to prove that:
$$\forall\Gamma,\forall\phi,\enspace\Gamma\ \textit{is consistent} \implies (\Gamma,\phi)\ \textit{is consistent}\ \lor\ (\Gamma,\neg\phi)\ \textit{is consistent}$$
Following some books, e.g., Blackburn's and Popkorn's, this seems to boil down to a lemma:
$$(\Gamma\vdash\phi)\iff (\Gamma,\neg\phi)\ \textit{is not consistent}$$
However, when trying to prove the only if side by contraposition, I get that, assuming:
- $(\Gamma\vdash\phi)\implies\bot$
- $\Gamma\ \textit{is consistent}$ (derivable from 1)
- $\Gamma,\neg\phi \vdash \psi$
- $\Gamma,\neg\phi \vdash \neg\psi$
...should derive a contradiction. I can see how to do that if I assume a deduction theorem, thus I can, from 3 and 4, derive both $\Gamma\vdash\neg\phi\rightarrow\psi$ and $\Gamma\vdash\neg\phi\rightarrow\neg\psi$, from which we derive that $\Gamma\vdash\phi$, which is a contradiction, as expected. However, I cannot see how to do this without the deduction theorem, which may not be available in the modal logic system. I'm not sure if I'm missing something, as I've seem this property even left as an exercise to the reader in a book (sorry, I forgot which one).
So, my questions: (1) can this be proved without using the deduction theorem? (2) If so, how? (3) If not so, does this mean that Lindenbaum's lemma actually depends on the deduction theorem?