Introduce a rule in type theory that if $\Gamma \vdash f : \text{Type} \to \text{Type}$ and $\Gamma \vdash e : A \simeq B$ then $\Gamma \vdash f[e] : f(A) \simeq f(B)$.
It may seem like such a rule is redundant (of course type equivalence is preserved by operations on types), but that is not so. Assuming this axiom, $A \simeq B$ implies $A = B$ (because then $A = B$ is equivalent to $B = B$).
This is an interesting alternative to univalence because the axiom doesn't actually refer to type equality. (In a theory without type equality, it still implies that equivalent types satisfy all reflexive relations on types, and gives a way to transport arbitrary structures on equivalent types.)
My question is if this axiom is in fact equivalent to the univalence axiom.
I'm guessing that the following properties might also need to be assumed, but I'm not sure:
$$id_\text{Type}[e] = e$$ $$(f \circ g)[e] = f[g[e]]$$ $$f[id_A] = id_{f(A)}$$ $$f[e \circ d] = f[e] \circ f[d]$$