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As my first math project, I have been working on Sheehan's Conjecture and am stuck for weeks. I wonder if I am at a dead end.

Sheehan's Conjecture states that every Hamiltonian 4-regular simple graph has at least two Hamiltonian cycles.

So far the best known results are from Thomassen's theorem. Let $G$ be a 2-edge-colouring graph in red and blue. A set $S$ of vertices of $G$ is called red-stable if no two vertices of $S$ are joined by a red edge, and blue-dominating if every vertex of $V\backslash S$ is adjacent by a blue edge to at least one vertex of $S$.

Let $G$ be a graph and $C$ be a Hamilton cycle of $G$. Colour the edges of $C$ red and the remaining edges of $G$ blue. Thomassen's theorem states that $G$ must have a second Hamilton cycle if there is a red-stable blue-dominating set $S$ in $G$.

Using Thomassen's theorem it has been proved that there is a non zero probability of red-stable blue-dominating set for any $k$-regular graphs ($k$$\geq$23).

I tried to directly calculate the probability of red-stable blue-dominating set for 4-regular graphs.

If the probability of red-stable sets, blue-dominating sets, and non red-stable non blue-dominating sets add up to be larger than 1, then Sheehan's Conjecture holds by Thomassen's theorem.

Clearly, if we delete all red edges from $G$, there will remain a 2-regular graph, which contains one or more disconnected blue loops, as shown in the figure bellow.

G can be separated into a red loop and some blue loops

Suppose the Hamilton cycle $C$ has $n$ vertices, let $P(n)$ be the probability of red-stable sets in $C$.

For any Hamilton path $H$ in the Hamilton cycle $C$, let $P'(n)$ be the probability of red-stable sets in $H$.

Figure bellow is an example of a path, where each 1 represents a vertex in set $S$, and each 0 represents a vertex not in set $S$, so $S$ is red-stable.

$S$ would not be a red-stable set if the graph is not a path but a cycle, for both ends of the path will be joined by a red edge directly.

Red-stable set in a path

We have

$P(n)=\frac{1}{4}P'(n-2)+\frac{1}{4}P'(n-3)\ \ \ \ \ (1)$

$P'(n)=P(n)+\frac{1}{16}P'(n-4)\ \ \ \ \ (2)$

$P'(1)=1,P'(2)=\frac{3}{4},P'(3)=\frac{5}{8},P'(4)=\frac{1}{2}\ \ \ \ \ (3)$

For set $S$ to be red-stable on a cycle with $n$ vertices, there are three cases as illuminated in the figure bellow, where we draw the cycle as a line by taking any pair of adjacent vertices as the ends of the line. The choose of the end vertices are irrelevant.

Cases of red-stable set on a cycle

The first case is such that both ends of the line are not in $S$. The probability of this case is $\frac{1}{4}P'(n-2)$, where $\frac{1}{4}$ is the probability of both ends being 0, and $P'(n-2)$ is the probability of $S$ being red-stable in the path consisting of the remaining $n-2$ vertices.

The second case is such that one end of the line is in $S$, but the other end is not. The probability of this case is $\frac{1}{8}P'(n-3)$, where $\frac{1}{8}$ is the probability of one end being 0 and the other end being 10, and $P'(n-3)$ is the probability of $S$ being red-stable in the path consisting of the remaining $n-3$ vertices. The third case is similar to the second case with a probability $\frac{1}{8}P'(n-3)$.

Therefore, the total probability is as equation (1).

For set $S$ to be red-stable on a path with $n$ vertices, there are four cases where three cases as illuminated in the figure above, and the fourth case is shown in the figure bellow.

One case of red-stable set on a path

The fourth case is such that both ends of the line are in $S$. The probability of this case is $\frac{1}{16}P'(n-4)$, where $\frac{1}{16}$ is the probability of one end being 01 and the other end being 10, and $P'(n-4)$ is the probability of $S$ being red-stable in the path consisting of the remaining $n-4$ vertices.

Therefore, the total probability is as equation (2).

Equation (3) contains the basic cases where $n$ is 1, 2, 3 or 4.

For blue-dominating sets, by similar methods, we have

$Q(n)=\frac{1}{4}Q'(n-2)+\frac{1}{4}Q'(n-3)+\frac{3}{16}Q'(n-4)\ \ \ \ \ (4)$

$Q'(n)=Q(n)+\frac{1}{16}Q'(n-5)+\frac{1}{64}Q'(n-6)\ \ \ \ \ (5)$

$Q'(1)=1,Q'(2)=1,Q'(3)=\frac{7}{8},Q'(4)=\frac{13}{16},Q'(5)=\frac{3}{4},Q'(6)=\frac{11}{16}\ \ \ \ \ (6)$

, $Q(n)$ is the probability of blue-dominating sets in $C$.

Equation (4) is the probability of blue-dominating set on one blue cycle. However, there may have more blue cycles in $G$. It seems difficult to have a systematical result of a comparison of probabilities of blue-dominating sets in a single-cycle graph and in a multiple-cycles graph with same amount of vertices.

Suppose $G$ contains a single blue cycle as shown on the left of the figure bellow. We split $G$ into $G'$ with two blue cycles at vertices $a$ and $b$, and $c$ and $d$, as shown on the right of the figure bellow. Suppose the two parts have $n_{1}$ and $n_{2}$ vertices respectively.

enter image description here

Whether or not $Q(n_{1})Q(n_{2})-Q(n)>0$ is variable by $n_{1}$ and $n_{2}$. I have checked for three cases: (a) $n_{1}=6\ n_{2}=6$; (b) $n_{1}=6\ n_{2}=7$; (c) $n_{1}=7\ n_{2}=7$.

For (a), $Q(n_{1})Q(n_{2})-Q(n)=\frac{11}{2048}$; for (b), $Q(n_{1})Q(n_{2})-Q(n)=\frac{3}{2048}$; for (c), $Q(n_{1})Q(n_{2})-Q(n)=-\frac{15}{8192}$.

We can directly calculate the number of blue-dominating sets by an inclusion-exclusion argument and the star and bar method. The result is:

$\sum_{1\leq m\leq n}(\sum_{1\leq l\leq j,m_{1}+\ldots+m_{j}=m,m_{i}\geq\lceil\frac{n_{l}}{3}\rceil}(\prod_{1\leq l\leq j}(\frac{n_{l}}{m_{l}}\cdot\sum_{i\geq0}(-1)^{i}\tbinom{m_{l}}{i}\tbinom{n-1-3i}{m_{l}-1}))).$

The next step is to calculate the probability of non red-stable non blue-dominating sets, which seems a difficult task. I have tried for weeks with no luck so far.

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    $\begingroup$ have you tried looking for counterexamples? and what does the literature say? I thought Thomassen said something in his paper about how $k=4$ shouldn't be possible (but I could easy be misremembering there). $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 13 at 10:16
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    $\begingroup$ but anyways, brute-forcing the probability seems unadvisable and likely to fail. are you familiar with more sophisticated probabilistic tools (such as the Lovasz local lemma)? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 13 at 10:18
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    $\begingroup$ Sheehan’s conjecture is a notoriously difficult 50-year old open problem that appeared in Bondy’s list of beautiful conjectures in graph theory. I wouldn’t be too disappointed if you can’t solve it in the first weeks of your first math project. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 13 at 12:05
  • $\begingroup$ I read materials of Sheehan’s conjecture in Bondy and Murty’s textbook. As local lemma is used by Thomassen to prove 73-regular and above has at least two Hamilton cycles, I know how to use the lemma, but don’t know how to prove the lemma itself. I don’t have much knowledge of probability except those in A-Level math. $\endgroup$
    – Daniel Liu
    Commented Feb 14 at 2:22

1 Answer 1

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From the paper Independent Dominating Sets and Hamiltonian Cycles by Haxell, Seamone, and Verstraete, if you look at Hamiltonian cycle of length $4n$, along with $n$ random disjoint copies of $C_4$, then almost surely you produce a graph $G$ without a stable dominating set $S$.

The reason for this is that $S$ must have 2 points in each $C_4$, thus it must have at least $2n$ vertices. But there are only two independent sets of this size within the original Hamiltonian cycle (the two color classes of this bipartite graph). If there is a $4$-cycle contained in each of these independent sets, then no choice of $S$ works.

Thus, there is even an $8$ vertex counterexample. Take a $C_8$, and then place a copy of $C_4$ in each independent set of the $8$-cycle.

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  • $\begingroup$ P.S. Don't feel too bad about the dead end! I think when I was your age, it took me about two years before I proved anything cool. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 13 at 13:10
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much for the explanation and the literature. I can finally stop struggle on this route. I may try other approaches. Any suggestion is welcomed. $\endgroup$
    – Daniel Liu
    Commented Feb 13 at 13:37
  • $\begingroup$ if I had an idea to solve this conjecture, I might just try and do it myself ;) I guess you could continue struggling, now assuming $G$ has sufficiently large girth... but I might try a different problem. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 13 at 15:03

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