Without LEM or the axiom of choice, we can prove that the Eudoxus reals are equivalent to the Cauchy reals but can't prove either of those equivalent to the Dedekind reals.
However, we can prove that the multi-valued Cauchy reals are equivalent to the Dedekind reals. My question is if we can say the same about a kind of multi-valued Eudoxus real?
In particular, a multi-valued Eudoxus real will be represented by a set $R \subseteq \mathbb Z \times \mathbb Z$ (thought of as a relation) such that $\forall x \in \mathbb Z. \exists a \in \mathbb Z. xRa$ and the set $\{a + b - c: \exists x, y \in \mathbb Z. xRa \land yRb \land (x+y)Rc\}$ is bounded. Relations $R_1$ and $R_2$ represent the same multi-valued Eudoxus real when the set $\{a - b : \exists x \in \mathbb Z. xR_1a \land xR_2b\}$ is bounded.
We turn this into an ordered field in the same way as we do the (single-valued) Eudoxus reals. The Eudoxus reals are subfield of the multi-valued Eudoxus reals, and they are equal if we assume the axiom of countable choice.
We can embed a multi-valued Eudoxus real $e$ into the Dedekind reals via the Dedekind cut $(\{p \in \mathbb Q: p < e\}, \{q \in \mathbb Q: e < q\})$, as usual. My question: is this embedding surjective?