This question concerns the (synthetic) geometry of linear spaces.
Definition 1. A linear space is a pair $(P,\mathcal L)$ consisting of a set $P$ whose elements are called points and a family $\mathcal L$ of subsets of $P$ called lines such that the following axioms hold:
$\bullet$ every line $L\in \mathcal L$ contains at least three distinct points;
$\bullet$ for every distinct points $x,y\in P$ there exists a unique line $L\in\mathcal L$ containing those points;
$\bullet$ the set $P$ is not a line.
Two lines $L,\Lambda\in\mathcal L$ are called concurrent if $L\cap\Lambda$ is a singleton.
Definition 2. A linear space $(P,\mathcal L)$ is called a plane if there exist two concurrent lines $X,Y\in\mathcal L$ such that for every point $x\in P$ there exists a line $Z\in\mathcal L$ such that $x\in Z$ and $X\cap Z\ne\varnothing\ne Z\cap Y$.
Definition 3. A plane $(P,\mathcal L)$ is called
$\bullet$ projective if every distinct lines $L,\Lambda\in\mathcal L$ are concurrent;
$\bullet$ affine if for every line $L\in\mathcal L$ and point $p\in P\setminus L$, there exists a unique line $\Lambda\in\mathcal L$ such that $p\in \Lambda\subseteq P\setminus L$;
$\bullet$ semiaffine if for every line $L\in\mathcal L$ and point $p\in P\setminus L$, there exists at most one line $\Lambda\in\mathcal L$ such that $p\in \Lambda\subseteq P\setminus L$;
$\bullet$ a biaffine if for every disjoint lines $L,L'\in\mathcal L$ and point $p\in P\setminus L$, there exists a unique line $\Lambda\in\mathcal L$ such that $p\in \Lambda\subseteq P\setminus L$;
$\bullet$ Cartesian if there exists two concurrent lines $X,Y\in\mathcal L$ such that for every point $p\in P\setminus(X\cup Y)$ there exist unique lines $H,V\in\mathcal L$ such that $H\cap X=\varnothing\ne H\cap Y$, $V\cap X\ne\varnothing=V\cap Y$, and $p\in H\cap V$.
It is easy to see that
Cartesian $\Leftarrow$ affine $\Rightarrow$ biaffine $\Rightarrow$ semiaffine $\Leftarrow$ projective
and none of these implications can be reversed.
By the Kuiper-Dembowski Theorem (1962), every finite semiaffine plane is one of the following:
(i) a projective plane;
(ii) an affine plane;
(iii) a projective plane with a removed point;
(iv) an affine plane with an attached point at infinity.
This classification of finite semiaffine planes implies the following characterization:
Theorem. A finite plane is affine if and only if it is biaffine and Cartesian.
Is this characterization still true for infinite planes?
Problem. Is every biaffine Cartesian plane affine?