I've seen referenced here that if $M$ and $N$ are closed topological $n$-manifolds and $f: \mathbb{R}\times M \to \mathbb{R}\times N$ is a homeomorphism, then $M$ and $N$ are h-cobordant.
I know that the first step of the proof is to consider the region between $f(0\times M)$ and $\varepsilon \times N$ in $\mathbb{R}\times N$. I see how this gives a cobordism from $M$ to $N$, but I fail to see how this region is an h-cobordism.