Let $S^1$ be the unit circle in the complex plane. An atlas on $S^1$ is a finite collection $\alpha = \{ (U_i, \phi_i)\}_{i=1,\ldots,n}$ of pairs, where $U_i$ is an open subset of $S^1$ and $\phi:U_i\to\mathbb{R}$ is an open embedding (a homeomorphism onto open subset $\phi_i(U_i)$).
An atlas is called affine if for any $i,j\in\{1,\ldots,n\}$ the corresponding transition map $\phi_j\circ\phi_i^{-1}:\phi_i(U_i\cap U_j) \to \phi_j(U_i\cap U_j)$ is a restriction of some affine map $g_{i,j}:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$, $g_{i,j}(t) = at+b$, for some $a,b\in\mathbb{R}$ with $a\not=0$.
Question: do there exists an affine atlas on $S^1$ whose charts $\phi_i:U_i\to\mathbb{R}$ are homeomorphisms onto $\mathbb{R}$?
I suspect that the answer to the question is negative, but do not understand the obstructions for such atlases
The problem of existence of affine atlases with surjective charts is mentioned e.g. here.
- It is easy to construct an example of affine atlas with non-surjective charts.
Let $p:\mathbb{R}\to S^1$, $p(t)=e^{2\pi i t}$, be the universal cover of $S^1$, and let $\{U_i\}_{i=1,\ldots,n}$ be an open cover of $S^1$ by open intervals such that for all $i,j$ the intersection $U_i\cap U_j$ is either empty of connected. Then each interval $U_i$ is the image of some open segment $(a_i,b_i)$, defined up to a constant shift by an integer number. Let $\phi_i:U_i \to (a_i,b_i)$ be the inverse homeomorphism.
Claim. $\{ (U_i,\phi_i) \}_{i=1,\ldots,n}$ is an affine atlas.
Indeed, if $U_i\cap U_j$ is non-empty, and $\phi_i(U_i\cap U_j)=(c_i,d_i)$, then there is $k\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $\phi_j(U_i\cap U_j)=(c_i+k,d_i+k)$ and $g_{i,j}=\phi_j\circ\phi_i^{-1}:(c_i,d_i) \to (c_i+k,d_i+k)$ is given either by
- $g_{i,j}(t) = t+k$, or by
- $g_{i,j}(t) = k + d_i + c_i - t$
so it is affine.
- Let $S=(0,-1)=-i$ and $N=(0,1)=+i$ be the south and north poles of the circle. Then the stereographic projections $\phi_S:S^1\setminus S \to \mathbb{R}$ and $\phi_N:S^1\setminus N \to \mathbb{R}$ constitute an atlas with surjective charts, and it is easy to see (and well known) that the transition map $g = \phi_N\circ \phi_S^{-1}: \mathbb{R}\setminus 0\to \mathbb{R}\setminus 0$ is given by $g(t) = 1/t$ and is not affine.
I would be very grateful for any information about that question.